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#1 John Dolva

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Posted 27 February 2010 - 08:27 PM

If 0 times 1 equals 0 what does 0.0(recurring infinity mimus 1 times)1 times infinity equal? Is infinity divisible? For example, can one have half of infinity? If so, how much is half of infinity? (not kidding, merely ignorant)

#2 John Dolva

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Posted 28 February 2010 - 09:15 AM

Not bad. What about zero?

#3 John Dolva

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Posted 03 March 2010 - 08:34 AM

Zero actually has quite an interesting history (ditto infinity) Early mahtematicians from the east put forth a number of statements about it, in the context pretty clever. Anyway it's a worthwhile study for those interested in maths.
A lot of it is indeed tied to philosophy.

#4 John Dolva

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Posted 05 March 2010 - 08:36 AM

Daniel, I'm cool about your post. I think the history and philosophy of numbers very interesting and thought provoking. I'm pleased with your input and for students even though my question is easily answered the answering of it has not always been so easy. Particularly the history of zero from early Indian mathematicians to Central asian, to its slower adoptionin the west. (about 1600?). For students of maths these sorts of ''conundrums'' in the process of answering leads to lots of associated knowledge. Thank you for the input.




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