Jump to content
The Education Forum
  • Announcements

    • Evan Burton

      OPEN REGISTRATION BY EMAIL ONLY !!! PLEASE CLICK ON THIS TITLE FOR INFORMATION REQUIRED FOR REGISTRATION!:   06/03/2017

      We have 5 requirements for registration: 1.Sign up with your real name. (This will be your Username) 2.A valid email address 3.Your agreement to the Terms of Use, seen here: http://educationforum.ipbhost.com/index.php?showtopic=21403. 4. Your photo for use as an avatar  5.. A brief biography. We will post these for you, and send you your password. We cannot approve membership until we receive these. If you are interested, please send an email to: edforumbusiness@outlook.com We look forward to having you as a part of the Forum! Sincerely, The Education Forum Team
Justin Q. Olmstead

Student Question: Anti-Jewish Legislatioin

Recommended Posts

While reading a list of the Nazi anti-Jewish Legislation, one of my students asked why one of the Nuremburg Laws state that "Jews cannot employ Germans in their home under the age of 45."

I have no good explanation for this. Could someone else please give us some information here.

Thanks,

Justin Olmstead

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites

Dear Justin,

the regulation that "Jews cannot employ Germans in their home under the age of 45" is first of all based upon the key-principle and therefore axion of Nazi racism and antisemitism, that no German, who is considered to belonging to the "Uebermensch" and to the so called "arian race" should be "exploited" in any way by the non-arian and "Untermenschen", as the Jews were considered to be.

Secondly: the age of 45 is realted to reasons of employment of Germans up to 45 in the Nazi war economy and miltarist system - the latter comprising the "Wehrmacht" and the paramilitary organiazations SS, SA, Hitlerjugend, Deutsche Arbeits Front etc.

Klaus Popa, MA.

Die aktuellen Themen

While reading a list of the Nazi anti-Jewish Legislation, one of my students asked why one of the Nuremburg Laws state that "Jews cannot employ Germans in their home under the age of 45." 

I have no good explanation for this.  Could someone else please give us some information here.

Thanks,

Justin Olmstead

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites

To my previous answer I want to add the main reason for that interdiction: avoiding the intermingling of races, in this case of the superior Aryan-Germanic race of the 'Uebermensch' and the allegedly inferior race of the Semites, who were ascribed to the 'Untermensch' -type. For the sake of so called 'racial purity' this prohibition and many others of the 'Nuremberg Laws' were set up and instituted as state doctrine.

Klaus Popa, MA.

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
While reading a list of the Nazi anti-Jewish Legislation, one of my students asked why one of the Nuremburg Laws state that "Jews cannot employ Germans in their home under the age of 45." 

Whilst not being specifically aimed at the employment of female Germans under this age, it was for this reason that Hitler himself initially insisted upon the inclusion of this peculiar clause. The suspected reasons for this being Hitlers own suspected background.

It has been suggested to no small extent that Hitler himself was a quatre Jewish. Historians have argued convincingly that his father Alois had been the result of his grandmothers affair with the son of a Jewish gentlemen whilst in his employment as a maid. It is therefore no coincidence that this Nuremberg clause aimed to prevent exactly this.

Alois' mother, Maria Anna, then left the service of the family, later marrying a mill worker, Alois' acknowledged father, Johann Georg Hiedler. Thus young Alois Schicklgruber became Alois Hitler (Hiedler being mis-spelt by a priest on the birth record). If this was true then Hitler himself was one quatre Jewish.

This was not something the Fuhrer was oblivious to. More than this he had had his own men, including the future Gauleiter of Poland Hans Frank, investigate in minute detail. Even his own nephew used this fact to persistantly blackmail his rich uncle Adolf.

This particular point then, as well as the Nuremberg Laws themselves, have been put down by many as simply Hitler's own anti-semitic over compensation. As with the Salem witch trials of the 1600's and the McCarthiest 'Red-baiting' that would follow the Second World War, history has constiently proven that the best way to avoid accusation is to be the accuser.

Ben

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites

I have three new questions from students relating to anti-jewish legislation:

1. In July 1938 legislation required all streets in Germany that are of Jewish origin be replaced.

Question: At the wars end did those streets have their names changed back to the Jewish names?

2. What was the point of the May 1942 edict stateing that Jews cannot have pets?

3. What is the purpose of all Jews adding the name "Sarah" or "Israel" to their names?

Thanks for the help!

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
I have three new questions from students relating to anti-jewish legislation:

1.  In July 1938 legislation required all streets in Germany that are of Jewish origin be replaced. 

Question:  At the wars end did those streets have their names changed back to the Jewish names?

2.  What was the point of the May 1942 edict stateing that Jews cannot have pets? 

3. What is the purpose of all Jews adding the name "Sarah" or "Israel" to their names?

Thanks for the help!

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
I have three new questions from students relating to anti-jewish legislation:

1.  In July 1938 legislation required all streets in Germany that are of Jewish origin be replaced. 

Question:  At the wars end did those streets have their names changed back to the Jewish names?

2.  What was the point of the May 1942 edict stateing that Jews cannot have pets? 

3. What is the purpose of all Jews adding the name "Sarah" or "Israel" to their names?

Thanks for the help!

For the time being only short answers to questions 1 and 3:

The problem of street names is quite delicate. From the fact that after Reunification of the two German states on the territory of the former German Democratic Republic one generally returned to the old street names dating back to the Weimar Republic one may understand that some streets got their Jewish names back. On the other hand there are many street names on the territory of the former Federal Republic dedicated to persons belonging to the rightist and extreme right political spectrum, like army officers who served in Hitler's Wehrmacht, around which strong controversies arose and which in some cases were dropped, in some cases remaining unchanged.

Third question: the addition "Sarah" and "Israel" was introduced to facilitate the identification of Germans of Jewish origin by the authorities. There should be no doubt about the _racial_ origin of the persons, in whose identity papers those names were present.

Klaus Popa

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites

Please sign in to comment

You will be able to leave a comment after signing in



Sign In Now

×