I beg to differ even though I share some of your ideas concencerning the American and British electoral system and its effects. But when it comes to defining a democracy the electoral system and its shortcomings is only one aspect to consider. There other criteria which define and characterize a democracy like the right of free speech and press and I think we all agree that the media are an effective means of voicing and influencing public opinion. There is the right to form and/or join a party, union, grass-root movement etc.; the right to organise e.g. demonstrations etc.
Looking at the behaviour and attitude of the governments in and of Europe at the moment you can get the impression that after having been elected the Prime Ministers, Presidents, Bundeskanzler, MPs etc. do not care much about public opinion and cannot be controlled continually and effectively by the electorate.
The core of the problem is that we all live in representative/indirect demcocracies and that the only effective influence we seem to have is the ballot paper.
When Germany was reunited again in 1990 it was discussed if our constitution should be changed reinstating referenda and some other elements of direct democracy. The main argument of the supporters of more elements of direct democracy was that that would be a way to engage more people in the democratic process and to make decision-making more democratic. The opponents of the idea of referenda refered to the Weimar Republic and the negative experiences. Unfortunately the opponents won the day and the constitution was not changed.
I personally support the idea of more elements of direct democracy even on a national level (as I said in my previous posting the constitutions of some of the German Laender allow referenda on a local and regional level) because people then can have a more direct say in the running of the country. This also could have the positive effect that people are more interested and enganged in politics.
I take your point about free speech and press. The problem is, do we really have free speech and a free press? (I am concerned mainly with the British system). A case in point, Robert Relf in the 1970's. When the UK introduced, quite rightly, its anti-racism legislation, Mr. Relf advertised his house for sale to 'a white person only.' He was convicted and served a prison sentence for flouting the new law. I am quite sure that we will all agree that his conviction was morally correct. It does, however, mean that Mr. Relf has had his right to free speech curtailed. However much we dislike his opinions, should he have the right to express them?
As far as free press is concerned, I could not afford to start a newspaper to express opinions I am in agreement with. And ultimately the editors of papers decide what to print, so trying to have my opinions put into print through letters pages etc. is dependatnt on an individuals decision. I would also make the point that newspapers are obliged to print the truth, but truths can be manipulated to read differently than the intention of the originator. For example: the 1984 miners strike in the UK. The Saltley coke works had a mass picket to stop lorries going in. A headline on the front page of the 'Evening Mail' read 'policeman injured on picket line' or words to that effect. Most people who read that headline immediately had the impression that the pickets had caused the injury. Reading on, it transpired that the officer in question had slipped on a kerb, sprained his ankle and no picket was involved. It was a pure accident.But people had already condemmed the pickets due to the headline, and reading on to what really happened did not alter opinion. Readers still had it fixed in their mind that pickets were responsible, in as much as they were there.
So free speech? Of ourse we can never have it. It is more a question of where we draw the line.